In fact you don't need to check all the partial derivatives of all these functions, but is still remains straightforward . . . we can take some shortcuts. Lets see how:
Guess 1.: It is correct. To see this, you can compose all the norms with, for instance, the curve $\gamma(t)=(t,0,\ldots,0)$. It will gives us $\|\gamma(t)\|_p=|t|^{{p}\frac{1}{p}}=|t|$, wich we know is not differentiable at zero.
Guess 2.: It is not precisely correct, but I understand what you want to mean. The function $x\mapsto\|x\|_1$ is differentiable everywhere except on the axis. To see this, take a fixed $x$ outside the axis and for a small neighborhood of it that doesn't intersect the axis,
$$\displaystyle\|x\|_1=\sum_{i=1}^n\pm x_i$$
where the signs $\pm$ are determined by the signs of the coordinates of $x$ and they don't change on a small neighborhood of $x$. Hence, $\|x\|_1$ is differentiable on $x$ outside the axis, because it is just a sum/subtraction of coordinates. And $x\mapsto\|x\|_1$ is not differentiable on the axis. To see this, take a point over the $i$-axis, $(0,\ldots,0,x_i,0,\ldots,0)$ and consider the path
$$\gamma(t)=(0,\ldots,0,t,0,\ldots,0,x_i,0,\ldots,0)$$
(just put $t$ in another coordinate). Then $\|\gamma(t)\|_1=|t|+|x_1|$ wich is not differentiable at $0$, hence $\|\cdot\|_1$ is not differentiable at $(0,\ldots,0,x_i,0,\ldots,0)$
Edit: as @iloveinna pointed me out, the argument in fact shows that in points wich contains some zero-coordinate, you can perform the same argument, so $\|\cdot\|_1$ is not differentiable not just on axis, but on the hyperplanes generated by the vectors of canonical basis.
Guess 3.: It is correct, because outside the origin, they are all the composition of two functions wich are differentiable out of $0$, say
\begin{eqnarray}
x&\longmapsto&|x_1|^p+\cdots+|x_n|^p \phantom{20}\textrm{and}\\
t&\longmapsto&t^\frac{1}{p}
\end{eqnarray}
As we can see, we have not calculated the partial derivtives. Instead, we have used paths to show non-differentiability and elementary properties (compositions and signs of coordinates) to see differentiability, but it still remains straightforward.
Your argument actually applies to prove that the map is not differentiable at certain point as long as the point contains a zero-coordinate. So it does not only non-differentiable on axis , but hyperplanes spanned by the axis, right?
– iloveinna May 13 '12 at 11:24