I'll assume that you're asking about the expected number of $j$-cycles in a permutation uniformly randomly selected among all permutations on $n$ symbols.
Your equation relates to expressions for a generating function in which the coefficient of the term $u^n\prod_ix_i^{k_i}/n!$ counts the number of permutations on $n$ symbols with $k_i$ cycles of length $i$. The expected number of $j$-cycles in a uniformly random permutation on $n$ symbols is the sum of the numbers of $j$-cycles in all such permutations divided by the number $n!$ of all such permutations, and we get that by summing over the coefficients times the number $k_j$ of $j$-cycles. Thus the desired expected number is
$$
\begin{align}
[u^n]\left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}\prod_{m\ge1}\mathrm e^{u^mx_m/m}\right|_{x_k=1}
&=
[u^n]\frac{u^j}j\left.\prod_{m\ge1}\mathrm e^{u^mx_m/m}\right|_{x_k=1}
\\
&=
[u^n]\frac{u^j}j\prod_{m\ge1}\mathrm e^{u^m/m}
\\
&=
[u^n]\frac{u^j}j\mathrm e^{\sum_{m\ge1}u^m/m}
\\
&=
[u^n]\frac{u^j}j\mathrm e^{-\log(1-u)}
\\
&=
[u^n]\frac{u^j}j\frac1{1-u}
\\
&=\begin{cases}
1/j&j\le n\;,\\
0&j\gt n\;.
\end{cases}
\\
\end{align}
$$
Thus the expected number of $j$-cycles in a permutation on $n$ symbols is $1/j$, unless $j\gt n$, in which case it is of course zero.
Note that this result can be more easily obtained directly: There are $(j-1)!$ ways of arranging $j$ given symbols in a cycle, $(n-j)!$ permutations of the remaining symbols and $n!$ permutations in total, so the probability for $j$ given symbols to form a cycle in a permutation randomly uniformly chosen among all permutations of $n$ symbols is
$$
\frac{(j-1)!(n-j)!}{n!}\;.
$$
There are $\displaystyle\binom nj$ selections of $j$ out of $n$ symbols, so the expected number of $j$-cycles is
$$
\binom nj\frac{(j-1)!(n-j)!}{n!}=\frac1j\;.
$$
Since the result doesn't depend on $n$ as long as $n\ge j$, one could in a certain sense say that the expected number of $j$-cycles in any random permutation, of unspecified length, is $1/j$, namely in the sense that the expected number of $j$-cycles in a permutation uniformly randomly chosen among all permutations on at most $n$ symbols goes to $1/j$ as $n\to\infty$; since you didn't specify a distribution, perhaps this is the result you were aiming at?