EDIT. Step 2 is wrong. I asked a separate question on this matter.
I submit that the answer is affirmative, with the $L^2$ convergence. The idea comes from a property of the heat equation, according to which, if a function has a local minimum, then letting it evolve according to the heat equation will fill in such minimum. We are going to apply this idea to the modulus $\lvert \vec{V}\rvert$ of the given vector field, whose minima are precisely the zeros of $\vec V$.
Step 1. This solves the approximation problem, but produces a non-smooth vector field at the zeros of $\vec V$. I attempted to solve the smoothness issue in the forthcoming Step 2, which however contains an error.
Assume that $\vec{V}$ is continuous and $\vec{V}\in L^2(\mathbb R^d; \mathbb R^d)$, and that
$$Z:=\{x\in \mathbb R^d\ :\ \vec V(x)=0\}$$
is a set of measure zero; this is actually a weaker assumption than requested. Write
$$
\vec{V}(x)=R(x)\omega(x), \quad \text{where }R(x):=\lvert \vec V(x)\rvert,\text{and } \omega(x)\in \mathbb S^{d-1}.$$
We remark that the definition of $\omega(x)$ is ambiguous on $Z$.
Now let $R(t, x)$ be the unique solution to
$$
\begin{cases}
\partial_t R =\Delta R, & t>0, x\in\mathbb R^d,\\
R(0, x)=R(x).
\end{cases}$$
Since $R(x)\ge 0$, by the minimum principle $R(t, x)>0$ for all $t>0$.$^{[1]}$ Moreover, $R(t, x)\to R(x)$ both pointwise and in $L^2$ sense. By all these considerations, the time-dependent vector field
$$
\vec V(t, x):=R(t,x)\omega(x)$$
vanishes nowhere and converges to $\vec V$ as $t\downarrow 0$, pointwise and in $L^2$ sense.
Step 2. (wrong) The function $\vec{V}(t, x)$ of the previous step needs not be continuous for $t>0$ and $x\in Z$, where it will point in one of the "ambiguous" directions of $\omega(x)$.
To circumvent this difficulty, we introduce $\omega(t, x)$, defined as follows. Consider $\omega(x)\in\mathbb S^{d-1}$ as a vector in $\mathbb R^d$, and let
$$\eta\colon [0, \infty)\times \mathbb R^d\to \mathbb R^d$$
be the unique solution to the vector-valued heat equation
$$
\begin{cases}
\partial_t \eta = \Delta \eta, &t>0, \\
\eta(0, x)=\omega(x).
\end{cases}$$
This makes sense, because $\omega\in L^\infty(\mathbb R^d; \mathbb R^d)$.
Now, since $\omega(x)\ne 0$ at all $x\in\mathbb R^d$, and since $\eta$ is continuous in $t$,
there is a $\delta >0$ such that $\eta(t,x)\ne 0$ for all $t\in [0, \delta]$ and $x\in \mathbb R^d$.
(Warning: this needs not be true; for example, consider $\omega(x)=x/\lvert x \rvert$. See the follow-up question.)
It makes thus sense to define
$$
\omega(t, x):=\frac{\eta(t, x)}{\lvert \eta(t, x)\rvert}, \qquad t>0.$$
Now, by a standard property of the heat equation known as instantaneous smoothing effect, the function $\eta(t, \cdot)$ is smooth for all $t>0$. Therefore, $\omega(t, \cdot)$ is also smooth.
Conclusion. By the same argument as in Step 1, the function
$$\vec V(t, x):= R(t, x) \omega(t, x),\qquad t\in [0, \delta], $$
is such that $\vec V(t, x)\ne 0$ for all $t>0$ and $x\in \mathbb R^d$, and it converges to $\vec V(x)$, both pointwise and in the $L^2$ sense, as $t\downarrow 0$. (It is possible that this convergence can be upgraded with further regularity assumptions on $\vec V$). Also, $\vec V(t, \cdot)$ is smooth for all $t\in (0, \delta)$.
[1] Actually, this can also be seen as an immediate consequence of the explicit formula $$R(t, x)=(4\pi t)^{-\frac d 2}\int_{\mathbb R^d} R(y)e^{-\frac{|x-y|^2}{4t}}\, dy.$$