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Suppose that $D$ is an integral domain and $F$ its field of fractions, $D \neq F$. I want to show that $F$ as $D$-module is not Noetherian.

Attempt: By contradiction, suppose it is. Because $D \neq F$ I can find $d$ which is not in $F$. How to build an ascending chain that leads to a contradiction? I know that the different powers of $d$ are all different from 0 because $D$ is domain. But I get a descending chain, and I want an ascending one. Any ideas?

Lord_Farin
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Robert
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2 Answers2

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You were almost there.

Since $D$ is not a field, there is some nonzero $d \in D$ such that $d \notin D^\times$. Then $d^{-1} \in F \setminus D$.

Now consider the $D$-modules $d^{-n}D$, $n \in \Bbb N$.

Lord_Farin
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Choose $f \in F \setminus D$, so $f = b/a$, with $b, a \in D$, and $a \ne 0$ not invertible in $D$. We have also $1/a \in F \setminus D$.

Consider the $D$-submodules of $F$ given by $$ \left\langle \frac{1}{a} \right\rangle \subseteq \left\langle \frac{1}{a^{2}} \right\rangle \subseteq \left\langle \frac{1}{a^{3}} \right\rangle \subseteq \dots $$ All inclusions are proper, because if $$ \left\langle \frac{1}{a^{i}} \right\rangle = \left\langle \frac{1}{a^{i+1}} \right\rangle $$ then there is $c \in D$ such that $$ \frac{c}{a^{i}} = \frac{1}{a^{i+1}} $$ or $c a^{i+1} = a^{i}$, which implies, since $D$ is a domain, $c a = 1$, thus $a$ invertible in $D$.

  • Much thanks to both of you, I'm very happy with the answers. By the way, how would you show that $F$ doesn't have a basis as $D$-module? Again, thanks. – Robert Apr 24 '13 at 16:54
  • @Robert, start from the fact that any two nonzero elements of $F$ have a nonzero common $D$-multiple. – Andreas Caranti Apr 24 '13 at 18:59
  • Consider $u=a/b,v=c/d$ not zero in $F$. Then, $ub=a, vd=b$ so if I consider $ab=u(bdv)=(ubd)v$ is common D-multiple of $u,v$. And now... – Robert Apr 26 '13 at 15:18
  • @Robert, I was thinking of $ubc = ac = vda$. Anyway, so if it has a basis, it consists of one element only. Show that this is impossible. – Andreas Caranti Apr 26 '13 at 15:50
  • It's imposible because then, the field would be the same as its field of fractions. Much thacks! It was short, but hard for me. – Robert Apr 26 '13 at 16:10