The answer to this is yes. An easy proof is as follows: suppose that $\rho,\sigma$ have size $n$ with $\rho \leq \sigma$. Note that
- $\dim \ker \rho = n - \operatorname{rank}(\rho)$,
- $\ker \rho = \{x \in \Bbb R^n : x^T\rho x = 0\}$,
- $x^T\rho x \leq x^T \sigma x$ for all $x \in\Bbb R^n$.
Conclude that $\ker(\rho) \supseteq \ker (\sigma)$, so that $\dim \ker \rho \geq \dim \ker \sigma$, so that $\operatorname{rank}(\rho) \leq \operatorname{rank}(\sigma)$.
Note: in this definition of positive semidefinite, a positive semidefinite matrix is required to be symmetric (or Hermitian in the complex case). For the alternative definition where we only require $x^T\rho x \geq 0$ for real vectors $x$, the statement does not hold.
Proof that $\ker \rho = \{x \in \Bbb R^n : x^T\rho x = 0\}$: it is clear that $\ker \rho \subseteq \{x \in \Bbb R^n : x^T\rho x = 0\}$, but the reverse inclusion requires proof.
One option is to see this as a consequence of the Rayleigh-Ritz theorem: if $x^T\rho x$ minimizes $x^T\rho x$ subject to the constraint that $\|x\| = 1$, then $x$ must be an eigenvector. If $\rho x = \lambda x$ and $x^T\rho x = 0$, then we must have $\lambda x^Tx = 0 \implies \lambda = 0$, so that we indeed have $\rho(x) = 0$.
Another option is to use the existence of a positive semidefinite square root: let $\tau = \sqrt{\rho}$. note that
$$
\tau x = 0 \iff (\tau x)^T(\tau x) = x^T\rho x = 0.
$$
However, $\tau^2 = \rho$ implies that $x^T \rho x = 0 \implies \tau x = 0 \implies \rho x = \tau(\tau x) = 0$.
We could similarly make use of the existence of the Cholesky decomposition.
Another option, while I'm at it. Let $\rho$ be a positive semidefinite matrix, and suppose for the purpose of contradiction that $x^T \rho x = 0$ but $\rho x \neq 0$. Let $B$ denote the matrix with columns $x,\rho x$. We find that
$$
B^T \rho B = \pmatrix{x^T\rho x & x^T \rho^2 x\\ x^T \rho^2 x & x^T \rho^3 x} =
\pmatrix{0 & \|\rho x\|^2 \\ \|\rho x\|^2 & x^T \rho^3 x}.
$$
$B^T \rho B$ has negative determinant and therefore fails to be positive semidefinite, but this is impossible. Equivalently, we could have shown directly that $(By)^T\rho(By) \geq 0$ cannot hold for all $y \in \Bbb R^2$.