Let $\mathscr S$ be a subspace of $\mathbb R^p$, and let G be positive semidefinite such that $\operatorname{span}(G) \subset \mathscr S$. The following statements are equivalent:
for all $\nu \in \mathscr S, \nu \neq 0,$ we have $\nu^T G \nu >0$;
$\operatorname{span}(G) = \mathscr S$.
Proof.
$3 \Rightarrow 2$. If statement 2 is not true then there exists $\nu \in \mathscr S, \nu \neq 0$, such that $\nu^T G \nu=0$. Then $\nu \perp \operatorname{span}(G)$ and statement 3 is not true.
Question: Given $\nu^T G \nu=0$, how do we get $\nu \perp \operatorname{span}(G)$?
I know by definition, if I want to say $\nu$ is orthogonal of a subspace $W$, then for every vector $w \in W$, we should have $\nu^T w=0$. But here I have span, which confuses me.