$\def\spec{\operatorname{Spec}}
\def\bbA{\mathbb{A}}
\def\frp{\mathfrak{p}}
\def\sV{\mathcal{V}}$Here's an example coming from algebraic geometry (inspired by G. Bresciani's example). Let $k$ be an infinite field.
Let $A=\dfrac{k[x,y_a\mid a\in k]}{((x-a)y_a\mid a\in k)}$ and $X=\spec A$.
We have surjections
\begin{align*}
A&\to\dfrac{A}{(y_a\mid a\in k)}\\
A&\to\dfrac{A}{(x-b,y_a\mid a\in k\setminus\{b\})},\quad b\in k,
\end{align*}
that give rise, respectively, to closed subschemes
\begin{align*}
\spec k[x]\cong H\to X\\
\spec k[y_b]\cong V_b\to X
\end{align*}
Geometrically, $X$ is a copy of $\mathbb{A}_k^1\cong H$ to which we have glued the origin of $\mathbb{A}_k^1\cong V_a$ at each point $a\in H$. More precisely, on $k$-rational points, we have that $X(k)= k\times k$, where $H(k)$ and $V_a(k)$ correspond respectively to $k\times\{0\}$ and $\{a\}\times k$, as subsets of $X(k)$ (here, ‘$H$’ and ‘$V$’ stand for ‘horizontal’ and ‘vertical’; a drawing for $k=\mathbb{R}$ may elucidate why).
We note that $H$ plus the $V_a$'s cover $X$ (later, we will only need $X(k)=H(k)\cup\bigcup_{a\in k}V_a(k)$): suppose $z\in X$ does not lie in $H=\sV(y_a\mid a\in k)$. Denote $\frp\subset A$ to the associated prime of $z$. Then $y_b\notin\frp$, for some $b\in k$, whence $x-b\in\frp$ (since $(x-b)y_b=0$ in $A$). Thus, $x-a\notin\frp$ for all $a\in k\setminus\{b\}$; hence, $y_a\in\frp$ for all $a\not = b$. In other words, $\frp\supset(x-b,y_a\mid a\in k)$, i.e., $z\in V_b$.
We claim that the irreducible components of $X(k)$ are exactly $H(k)$ and $V_a(k)$, $a\in k$. Hence, we would have a counterexample. It suffices to verify the hypotheses of the lemma here (since $|k|=\infty$):
$V_a(k)$ is closed and $V_a'(k):=D(y_a)(k)$ is open.
The subspaces $H(k)$ and $V_a(k)$ have the cofinite topology (they are homeomorphic to $\bbA_k^1(k)$).
We show that $H(k)$ is an irreducible component of $X(k)$: suppose $Z\subset X(k)$ is a closed irreducible subset containing $H(k)$. Note that $Z$ does not contain $V_a(k)$ (if it did, then $Z=V_a(k)\cup (Z\setminus V_a'(k))$ is a union of closed proper subsets); hence, $Z\cap V_a(k)$ is finite. We want to show that $Z=H(k)$. To look for a contradiction, suppose there is $z\in Z\setminus H(k)$, i.e., $z\in Z\cap V_a'(k)$, for some $a\in k$. It suffices to see that $Z\setminus\{z\}$ is closed in $X(k)$ (for $Z=(Z\setminus\{z\})\cup\{z\}$ and $X(k)$ is $\mathrm{T}_1$). Write $Z\cap V_a'(k)=\{(a,b_1),\dots,(a,b_n)\}$, and suppose $z=(a,b_1)$. Then $Z\setminus\{z\}=Z\cap \sV(y_a(y_a-b_2)\cdots(y_a-b_n))$ is closed.
¹Set-theoretically speaking, the intersection of $H$ with $V_a$ is $(a,0)$ (i.e., the prime $(x-a,y_a\mid a\in k)\subset A$), which is $k$-rational, so $H\cap V_a=(H\cap V_a)(k)=H(k)\cap V_a(k)$.