Consider the projective plane $\mathbb{R}P^2$ and a symmetric matrix $B \neq 0$ of a bilinear form that defines a quadric $Q := \{ [v] \in \mathbb{R}P^2 : v^tBv = 0\}$.
Is the following ok? And for the affine part I would need help/tips. I am very new to this stuff and do not really know how to handle these "equivalences" and keep projective, affine, euclidian geometry/maps apart.
First classify equivalent quadrics under projective transformations:
Sylvester's law of inertia allows to diagonalize $B$ using $S^{t}BS$ where $S \in Gl(\mathbb{R},3)$ so that $B$ has only diagonal elements in $\{0,1,-1\}$. Since $S \in Gl(\mathbb{R},3)$ it is a projective map, and hence the resulting quadrics are equivalent under projective transformations. We have the following 5 equivalence classes of quadrics represented by there diagonal elements: $(1,1,1),\ (1,1,-1),\ (1,1,0),\ (1,-1,0),\ (1,0,0)$.
Second assume now the projective plane $\mathbb{C}P^2$. Then in analogy we represent the 3 equivalence classes by there occuring diagonal elements $(1,1,1),\ (1,1,0),\ (1,0,0)$ after transformation. So here Sylvester provides us only with diagonal elements $\{0,1\}$ left and hence the number of classes of quadrics reduces.
Third assume again the projective plane $\mathbb{R}P^2$ but now consider only equivalence using affine transformations.
Here there should now be more than 5 cases, since less matrices for diagonalzation of $B$ are allowed, namely only those of affine transformations of the form $\begin{pmatrix}A & a \\ 0\ \ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$ where $A \in Gl(\mathbb{R},2), a \in \mathbb{R^2}$.
But I do not know how to work this out now..help? For me this looks weird..