No, you can't multiply both sides by $x - 1$, or at least not the way you think. In the limit as written, $x$ only exists within the limit. If you multiply both sides by something, that something is outside the limit:
$$(\text{something})\biggl(\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}\biggr)=7(\text{something})$$
and you can't use a variable that only exists within the limit, outside of the limit. (This is the same idea as scoping in computer programming, if you know anything about that.)
If you try to just go ahead and multiply by $x - 1$ anyway, you're using the same variable name $x$ for two different variables: one inside the limit, and one outside the limit. Here I'll use color to distinguish them:
$$(\color{red}x - 1)\biggl(\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}\biggr) = 7(\color{red}x - 1)\tag{1}$$
You can bring $\color{red}x - 1$ inside the limit, because $a \lim f(x) = \lim af(x)$ (given that $a$ does not depend on $x$),
$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{\bigl(x^2+(3-a)x+3a\bigr)(\color{red}x - 1)}{x-1} = 7\color{red}x - 7$$
but you can't cancel out $\color{red}x - 1$ with $x - 1$ because they're different variables. In general, you should just give them different names: instead of $\color{red}x$, use $y$, for example. Then you get
$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{\bigl(x^2+(3-a)x+3a\bigr)(y - 1)}{x-1} = 7y - 7$$
and in that case it's pretty clear why you can't cancel anything.
However, something you can do (which is a little sneaky if you think about it, but not complicated) is use the multiplicative property of limits, namely that
$$\lim_{y\to a}f(y)\lim_{z\to a}g(z) = \lim_{x\to a}f(x)g(x)\tag{2}$$
It's usually written using the same letter for the variable in each factor, but technically they are different variables so I've made that explicit. Looking back at equation (1), instead of bringing $\color{red}x - 1$ inside the limit, you can take another limit
$$\begin{align}
\biggl(\lim_{\color{red}x\to 1}\color{red}x - 1\biggr)\biggl(\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^2+(3-a)x+3a}{x-1}\biggr) &= \lim_{\color{red}x\to 1}7(\color{red}x - 1) \\
\lim_{\color{blue}x\to 1}(\color{blue}x - 1)\frac{\color{blue}x^2+(3-a)\color{blue}x+3a}{\color{blue}x-1} &= 0
\end{align}$$
where on the left side I've used the multiplicative property (2), and this time you can cancel out the factors of $\color{blue}x - 1$ to get
$$\lim_{\color{blue}x\to 1}\color{blue}x^2+(3-a)\color{blue}x+3a = 1+(3-a)+3a = 0$$
This is the same result as in Ivo Terek's answer, just achieved using different (more verbose) reasoning. In this explicit reasoning the step where you take the second limit in $\color{red}x$ is key.