Questions tagged [lp-spaces]

For questions about $L^p$ spaces. That is, given a measure space $(X,\mathcal F,\mu)$, the vector space of equivalence classes of measurable functions such that $|f|^p$ is $\mu$-integrable. Questions can be about properties of functions in these spaces, or when the ambient space in a problem is an $L^p$ space.

$L^p$ spaces are defined for $p\in(0,\infty]$ as follows:

Let $(X,\mathcal F,\mu)$ be a measure space. For $p$ with $0 < p<\infty$ we write $L^p(X,\mu)$ ($L^p(X)$ or $L^p$ when there is no ambiguity), for the vector space of equivalence classes (for equality almost everywhere) of measurable functions $f$ such that $\int_X|f|^p\mathrm{d}\mu$ is finite.

When $1\leq p<\infty$ we endow $L^p$ with the norm $$\lVert f\rVert_p:=\left(\int_X|f(x)|^p\mathrm{d}\mu(x)\right)^{1/p}$$ When $0 < p < 1$ we write $$\lVert f\rVert_p:=\int_X|f(x)|^p\mathrm{d}\mu(x)$$ which induces a metric on $L^p$.

For $p=+\infty$, $L^\infty$ is the space of equivalence classes of functions $f$ such that we can find a constant $C$ with $|f(x)|\leq C$ almost everywhere. Then $\lVert f\rVert_{\infty}$ is the infimum of constants $C$ satisfying the latter property, and is called the essential supremum of $|f|$.

These spaces are sometimes called Lebesgue spaces. If we work with counting measure on, for example, the set $\mathbb N$, we get sequence spaces $\ell^p$ and $\ell^\infty$ as special cases.

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Find a function $f(t)$ such that $\frac{1}{(t+1)f(t)}\in L^1$

We know that for all $\alpha > 0$, the functions $\dfrac{1}{(t+1)\cdot (t+1)^\alpha}$ belong to $L^1(0, \infty)$. We also know that for all $\alpha > 0$, the functions $\dfrac{1}{(t+1)\ln^\alpha (t+1)}$ do not belong to $L^1(0, \infty)$. My question…
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product of weak* convergence and weak convergence in $L^\infty$ and $L^p$

Suppose $(z_n)$ is a weakly convergent sequence in $L^p(\Omega)$, $\Omega$ is a limited open set of $\mathbb{R}^N$. Let $(\chi_n)$ be defined by $\chi_n(x)=\chi(x.n)$, where $\chi$ is the characteristic function of a rectangular block $B$. So, we…
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If $0\leq \alpha\leq1$, then $f(x)=x^{-\alpha}$ is not $L^{1}$ on $[1,\infty)$. But $f(x)$ is $L^{\infty}$ on $[1,\infty)$. How to show this

If $0\leq \alpha\leq1$, then $f(x)=x^{-\alpha}$ is not $L^{1}$ on $[1,\infty)$. But $f(x)$ is $L^{\infty}$ on $[1,\infty)$. How to show this
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I don't understand the definition of $L^p(\partial\Lambda)$, for some bounded and open $\Lambda\subseteq\mathbb R^d$

Let $d\in\mathbb N$, $\Lambda\subseteq\mathbb R^d$ be bounded and open and $p\ge 1$. In the definition of the trace operator, we consider the space $L^p(\partial\Lambda)$? But since $\partial\Lambda$ has Lebesgue measure zero and…
0xbadf00d
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Covergence in $L^p$

If $f_k\rightarrow f$ in $L^p$, $1\leq p < \infty$, $g_k\rightarrow g$ pointwise, and $\|g_k\|_{\infty} \leq M$ for all $k$. Prove that $f_k g_k\rightarrow fg$ in $L^p$. Attempted proof - Let $\{f_k\}$ be a sequence in $L^p$ that converges to…
Wolfy
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Mixed up with hierarchy of $L_p$ spaces

Consider the interval $[0,1]$ and define $$ X_1:= \left[0, \frac{1}{2}\right], ~~~X_2 := \left[\frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{4}\right], ~~ X_3 := \left[\frac{3}{4}, \frac{7}{8}\right], ...$$ Define a piecewise constant function as follow : $$ f(x) :=…
M.G
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$f_k\rightarrow g$ in $L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $f_k\rightarrow h$ in $L^r(\mathbb{R}^n)$, then $g=h$ $a.e.$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$

If $f_k\in L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)\cap L^r(\mathbb{R}^n) $ for some $p,r\in [1,\infty), f_k\rightarrow g$ in $L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $f_k\rightarrow h$ in $L^r(\mathbb{R}^n)$, then $g=h$ $a.e.$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$ I took $1\leq p
Shrey
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$L^1$ space is proper subset of interval on $L^1$ space?

I'm trying to understand this question: If $I$, $J$ are intervals on $\mathbb{R}$ and $I \subset J$ show that $L^1(J) \subset L^1(I)$. edit: I was reading a book called Lebesgue Integration and Measure by Weir, I wasn't too familiar with Lp spaces,…
xazen
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why $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f_n(t)^p$ is not zero on $L^p[-\pi,\pi]$?

$$f_n(t)=e^{int}$$ I have to calculate this $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{intp}\,dt$. Can i use dominated convergence theorem?
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neitheir $L^p((0, \infty),\mathbb{C}) \subset L^q((0, \infty),\mathbb{C})$ nor $L^q((0, \infty),\mathbb{C}) \subset L^p((0, \infty),\mathbb{C})$

I have to show that for $1\le p < q <\infty$ neitheir $L^p((0, \infty),\mathbb{C}) \subset L^q((0, \infty),\mathbb{C})$ nor $L^q((0, \infty),\mathbb{C}) \subset L^p((0, \infty),\mathbb{C})$. I previously had to show, that there is no $a \in…
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If $f \in L((0,1)^n)$ bounded does follow that $f$ is in $L(\mathbb{R}^n)$?

I read a few things about $L^2$-Spaces and I am not at all sure whether I understand it right. So here are two question which I struggle with: If a function $f: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is positive and bounded, is $f\in…
Laila
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