I'm studying the proof of Proposition 1.5 on silverman "The Arithmetic of Elliptic Curves" :
Proposition: Let $E$ be an elliptic curve. Then the invariant differential $\omega$ associated to a Weierstrass equation for $E$ is holomorphic and nonvanishing, i.e., $\mathrm{div}(\omega)=0.$
Let $P=(x_0,y_0)\in E$ and $$E:F(x, y)=y^2+a_1xy+a_3y−x^3−a_2x^2−a_4x−a_6=0,$$ so $$\omega=\frac{d(x-x_0)}{F_y(x,y)}=-\frac{d(y-y_0)}{F_x(x,y)}$$ Thus $P$ cannot be a pole of $ω,$ since otherwise $F_y(P)=F_x(P)=0,$ which would say that $P$ is a singular point of $E.$
I do not understand why the map $$E\longrightarrow \mathbb{P}^1\;\;\;[x,y,1]\longrightarrow [x,1]$$ is of degree $2$, and why this implies that $\mathrm{ord}_P(x−x_0)\leq2,$ and we have equality $\mathrm{ord}_P(x−x_0)=2$ if and only if the quadratic polynomial $F(x_0,y)$ has a double root ?
Thanks.