I have been struggling with the problem posed and answered in this post:
In particular, I am confused by the accepted answer's final assertion: if $(x,y) \in (x_0 - \delta_1, x_0 + \delta_1) \times (y_0 - \delta_2, y_0 + \delta_2)$, then $\|f(x_0,y_0) - f(x,y)\| < \epsilon$. I'm certain I'm missing something, but I do not see how this arises from the preceding observations.
My own attempt at solution runs as follows:
For all fixed $x_0$, call the function that takes $y \to f(x_0,y)$ $f_{x_0}$; let $f_{y_0}$ be the analogous function for $y_0$.
Choose $(x_0,y_0)$, and let $\epsilon > 0$. Since $f_{x_0}$ is continuous, we can choose $\delta_y$ such that \begin{align} y &\in (y_0 - \delta_y, y_0 + \delta_y)\Rightarrow\\ f(x_0,y) &\in \left(f(x_0,y_0) - \frac{\epsilon}{2}, f(x_0,y_0)+\frac{\epsilon}{2}\right) \end{align}
Now consider all $f_y$ such that $y \in (y_0 - \delta_y, y_0 + \delta_y)$. We want to find a $\delta_x$ such that \begin{align} x \in (x_0 - \delta_x, x_0 + \delta_x)\Rightarrow\\ f(x,y) \in \left(f(x_0,y) - \frac{\epsilon}{2}, f(x_0,y) + \frac{\epsilon}{2}\right) \end{align}
This is, for me, the sticking point. For each individual $f_y$ we can find a suitable $\delta$, and it's certainly tempting to choose the infimum of the set of all such $\delta$s -- but what if said infimum is $0$? How do we use the monotonicity of the $f_y$ to obtain $\delta_x$?
Thanks in advance.