Is this proof good? Given the problem as stated. I first define,
$$ g(x,b) = \frac{f(x)}{x}e^{ibx} $$
Which has the following property,
$$ g_b(x,b) = if(x)e^{ibx} $$
And that,
$$ |g_b(x,b)| = |if(x)e^{ibx}| = |i||f(x)||e^{ibx}| \leq |f(x)| $$
where since $f \in L^1$ we have a bounding function of $g$. Thus, we can differentiate under the integral,
$$ \frac{d}{db} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(x,b)dx $$
My question before I do that, is whether or notI can split the integral like this because $f(0)=0$ and $f$ is differentiable at zero,
$$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(x,b)dx = \int_{-\infty}^{0} g(x,b)dx + \int_{0}^{\infty} g(x,b)dx $$
So that,
$$ \frac{d}{db} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(x,b)dx = \frac{d}{db}\int_{-\infty}^{0} g(x,b)dx + \frac{d}{db}\int_{0}^{\infty} g(x,b)dx $$
And thus,
$$ \frac{d}{db}\int_{-\infty}^{0} g(x,b)dx + \frac{d}{db}\int_{0}^{\infty} g(x,b)dx = \int_{-\infty}^{0} g_b(x,b) dx + \int_{0}^{\infty} g_b(x,b)dx $$
And since $g_b$ is bounded by $f$ which is integrable, the two integrals exists. Thus, setting $b=0$, we attain the desired result.