Why are those equivalent transformations of inverse functions not the same thing?

Question

Why are $\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{g}+\frac{1}{b}$ and $f=g+b$ not the same thing?

Try $1/2 + 1/2$. Now try $2 + 2$. – aes Nov 22 '14 at 20:24 — aes, Nov 22 '14 at 20:24

score 0 · Accepted Answer · answered Nov 22 '14 at 20:20

0

we have $\frac{1}{f}=\frac{g+b}{bg}$ and then we have $f=\frac{bg}{b+g}$

answered Nov 22 '14 at 20:20

Stared too long at it =) , sorry for the question. – user42141 Nov 22 '14 at 20:24

1 Answers1