Let $f\in S_\infty\subset L_1(\mathbb{R},\mu)$ with $\mu$ as the Lebesgue linear measure be a Lebesgue-summable function such that $$\forall (p,q)\in\mathbb{N}^2_{\ge 0}\quad\exists C_{pq}>0: \Bigg|x^p\frac{d^q}{d x^q}f(x)\Bigg|< C_{pq}$$ I was wondering whether, if $\forall p\in\mathbb{N_{\ge 0}}\quad\int_{\mathbb{R}}x^pf(x)d\mu=0$, then $f$ is constantly, or almost everywhere, null. I cannot find a counterexample and therefore I think that the implication might well hold, but I cannot prove it either.
Since $x^p f(x)$ belongs to $S_\infty\subset L_1$, thanks to the fact that $f$ belongs to it, and is continuous I think that the Lebesgue integral and the Riemann improper integral $\mathscr{R}\int_{-\infty}^\infty t^pf(t)dt$ are the same. Please correct if I am wrong.
Nevertheless I cannot use calculus facts to prove the desired implication... I have also tried using the fact that the Fourier transform induces a bijection $S_\infty\to S_\infty$, but with no result. What do you think about it? Has anybody got a counterexample or proof? Thank you very much!