Let H be a Hilbert space and $\Phi:B(H)\longrightarrow B(H)$ is an additive bijective map. If $\mathbb{R}I⊆\Phi(\mathbb{R}I)$, can we conclude by the bijectivity of $\Phi$ that ? $\mathbb{R}I=\Phi(\mathbb{R}I)$(here I is the identity operator)
If yes how can i prove that and if no what is an example that rejects this claim?
So thanks for your help.