I know if $f$ is an odd function then
$$\int_{-L}^L f(x)\:dx = 0$$
my question is, is the converse necessarily true? Intuitively, I feel it should be that by assuming that the integral with those symmetric bounds is zero I can somehow show $f(-x) = -f(x)$, but I'm not sure how to go about it.
My attempt:
$$\int_{-L}^L f(x)\:dx = \int_{-L}^{0} f(x) \: dx + \int_{0}^{L} f(x) \: dx = 0$$.
So,
$$\int_{-L}^{0} f(x) \: dx = - \int_{0}^{L} f(x) \: dx$$
How do I use this to show $f(-x) = -f(x)$, or am I wrong to think the converse is necessarily true?
Can I just do this from my last step,
$$\int_{0}^{L} f(-x) \: dx = - \int_{0}^{L} f(x) \: dx$$.
Thus $f(-x) = -f(x)$, or is this not allowed?