If this polynomial is at most degree $n$, I know this measure exists, but I am not sure that whether there exists $\mu$ for every polynomial?
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1If $p(x)=1-x$ then $p(x)\ge 0.$ Thus, $\int_0^1p(x)d\mu(x)\ge 0$ while $p'(0)=-1<0.$ – mfl Dec 15 '14 at 06:53
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So I assume we are talking about complex measures or at least not-necessarily-positive measures? – Tim kinsella Dec 15 '14 at 07:04
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@mfl: I suppose the measure at here is complex-valued. This is a problem from Rudin's book real and complex analysis, if I remember correctly. – Bombyx mori Dec 15 '14 at 07:04
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3Hint: If such a measure exists, then $|p'(0)|\leq |\mu|([0,1])\sup_{x\in [0,1]} |p(x)|$. – Jose27 Dec 15 '14 at 07:18
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1@PhoemueX: This would not work, $p'_{n}(0)=0$ for all $n$ except $n=1$. – Bombyx mori Dec 15 '14 at 07:32
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@Bombyxmori: Right... Then let us take $p_n(x)= (1-x)^n /n$. – PhoemueX Dec 15 '14 at 07:39
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@PhoemueX: Oops...I did not think about this example. I think it should work. If it does you should put this into a short answer. – Bombyx mori Dec 15 '14 at 07:43
2 Answers
As every complex measure is of finite total variation, the functional
$$ C([0,1])\to \Bbb{C}, f \mapsto \int f \, d \mu $$
is bounded w.r.t. the sup-norm, hence continuous w.r.t. uniform convergence.
Now let $p_n (x)= (1-x)^n /n$. Then $p_n \to 0$ uniformly on $[0,1]$, hence
$$ \int p_n \, d\mu \to 0, $$
But $p_n '(0)= -1$ for all $n$. Hence there is no such measure.
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Let $f(x)=a_0+a_1x\cdots +a_{n}x^{n}, n\ge 1$. Then by linearity we have $$ \int fd\mu=\sum_{i=0}^{n}a_{i}\int x^{i}d\mu=a_{1}\int xd\mu=a_{1} $$ and this is because $$ \frac{d}{dx}|_{0}x^{i}=0, i\not= 1 $$ Therefore the measure $\mu$ can be viewed as a linear functional given by $$ \int_{[0,1]}\sum^{n}_{i=0}a_{i}x^{i}d\mu=a_{1},\forall n $$ I claim that this is not a continuous linear functional on the space of all polynomials at $[0,1]$. If $\mu$ is continuous we would have $$ \exists A, |f'(0)|\le A|f|_{\max} $$ But this is impossible because we can construct sequence of polynomials such that $$ |f_{n}'(0)|\ge 1, |f_{n}|_{\max}\rightarrow 0 $$ To explicitly construct this takes some work, and I am not sure if my construction is optimal. Let $g_{n}$ be a sequence of differentiable functions on $[0,1]$ such that $|g_{n}(0)'|\ge 1+\frac{1}{n}$ for all $n$, and $|g_{n}|_{max}\rightarrow 0$. This can be done geometrically. Then we approximate each $g_{n}$ by a sequence of polynomials $f^{i}_{n}$ globally such that $|f'(0)^{i}_{n}-g'(0)_{n}|\le \frac{1}{2i}$, $|f^{i}_{n}-g_{n}|_{max}\rightarrow 0$. This can be done by Weistrauss approximation theorem by working with $g_{n}$'s derivative one by one. Now taking the diagonal sequence $f^{n}_{n},n\in \mathbb{N}$ would give the desired counter-example.
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