I am working on showing the following.
There is a coupon bond redeemable at par with annual coupon rate $r$ per year. The yield to maturity is $i$. The total number of coupons is $n$. Show that the Macaulay duration for this coupon bond is
<p>$$\frac{1+i}{i}-\frac{1+i+n(r-i)}{r[(1+i)^n-1]+i}$$</p>
I understand the following.
To find the Macaulay Duration, we use the Present value of the bond, $P$ and the rate of change with respect to the yield rate $-\frac{d}{di}P$ and find the ratio, then multiply $1+i$.
So, letting $F$ be the face value and using some actuarial notation, I am thinking that
$$\begin{align} P &= Fr(v+v^2+ \cdots +v^n)+Fv^n \\ &=Fra_{\overline{n}\rceil i}+Fv^n\\ &=F(1+(r-i)a_{\overline{n}\rceil i})\\ \end{align}$$
I do not know which expression would be easier to use, but so far I have been trying to solve this using the last one.
Also, $-P'$ can be found as
$$\begin{align} -P'&=Fr(v+2v^2+ \cdots +nv^n)+Fnv^n\\ &=F(r(Ia)_{\overline{n}\rceil i}+nv^n)\\ \end{align}$$
The Macaulay Duration can be found from
$$D=\frac{F(r(Ia)_{\overline{n}\rceil i}+nv^n)}{F(1+(r-i)a_{\overline{n}\rceil i})}(1+i)$$
I do definitely see the bits and pieces in there, and as a matter of fact I was able to manipulate it so that the denominators are the same, but the numerator does not seem to match with my work.
For example, factoring out a $1 \over i$ on the given expression
$$\frac{1}{i} \left( (1+i)-\frac{1+i+n(r-i)}{ra_{\overline{n}\rceil i}+1}\right)$$
and combining the two terms into one,
$$\frac{1}{i} \left( \frac{r\ddot{a}{_{\overline{n}\rceil}}+n(r-i)}{ra_{\overline{n}\rceil}+1}\right)$$
Since
$$(Ia)_{\overline{n}\rceil i}= \frac{\ddot{a}_{\overline{n}\rceil i}-nv^n}{i}$$
I have a feeling that I am on the right track, but I haven't gotten the right expression. It's really driving me nuts!!
Can I have some help?
Thanks!