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I was writing an answer to this question, which asks about what happens to the apex of an isosceles triangle if a vertex is at infinity. I thought it would be very easy to prove it by setting up a limit of a function of the hypotenuse as it goes to infinity, but it turns out to be 180 degrees and not 0 as one would expect. What's wrong with my reasoning?

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isosceles triangle

In an isosceles triangle, the height from the apex is also the angle bisector, hence the angle $a$ is divided into two equal parts. We want to see the behavior of $a$ as the equal sides get longer and longer. In each right triangle formed, we have the equal side as the hypotenuse, so we'll call it $h$. Similarly, the height is the side adjacent to the angle $a/2$, and it'll be denoted by $d$. The relation between the sides and the angle is (by definition of cosine): $$\cos{(a/2)} = \frac{d}{h}$$ Using the double angle formula for cosine to find an expression in terms of $a$, we get:

$$\sqrt{\frac{1 + \cos{(a)}}{2}} = \frac{d}{h}$$ I chose the positive value only instead of $\pm$ since the sides are always positive. Now, we solve for $a$ to get a formula for the angle from the two sides:
$$a = \cos^{-1}{\left(\frac{2d^2}{h^2} - 1\right)}$$ From here, we can take the limit of the function as $h$ goes to infinity: $$\lim_{h \to \infty} \cos^{-1}{\left(\frac{2d^2}{h^2} - 1\right)}$$

The limit is equal to 180 degrees, not 0. If it were a $+1$ instead, the limit would be 0. Is there a glaring mistake I'm missing or is it something subtle?

Thank you for your time.

Daccache
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    The limit is 180 degrees if you assume that $2d^2/h^2$ tends to $0$. But $d$ depends on $h$; did you account for this? – Unit Dec 20 '14 at 19:29
  • @Unit Oooh, that made me realize my mistake. If I'd taken sine instead, then the base side and the hypotenuse would be independent, and the half angle formula would've led to a $+1$ in the limit, leading to the correct value. Thank you. – Daccache Dec 20 '14 at 19:36
  • Indeed, letting the constant base length be $2c$, we have $2d^2/h^2 - 1 = 1-c^2/h^2 \to 1$ as $h$ goes off, and the arccosine of $1$ is $0$. – Unit Dec 20 '14 at 19:40
  • You're welcome! – Unit Dec 20 '14 at 19:50

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