Set $\alpha=(2+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})^2$ and $\beta=(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})^2$, each positive, with $\alpha>\beta$.
We have $$F= \log\left(\frac{1+\alpha x^2}{1+\beta x^2}\right)$$
For all $x$, the fraction is in $[1,\frac{\alpha}{\beta})$. Further, as $x\to\infty$, the fraction gets closer and closer to the right endpoint. Hence the tightest possible bound for $F$ that will be valid for all $x$ is $$F\le \log \frac{\alpha}{\beta}=\log \alpha -\log \beta$$
If you don't like logs we can use the Taylor approximation $$\log x=(x-1)-\frac{(x-1)^2}{2}+\frac{(x-1)^3}{3}-\frac{(x-1)^4}{4}+\cdots$$
We set $x=\frac{\alpha}{\beta}$. The series is alternating, so if we truncate after a negative term we get a succession of upper bounds:
$$F\le \frac{\alpha}{\beta}-1$$
$$F\le \frac{\alpha}{\beta}-1-\frac{(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}-1)^2}{2}+\frac{(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}-1)^3}{3}$$
etc. Note that the first bound is already sharper than the one in the OP.