I have been going over this post and found myself confused by the calculations given by the OP. $$\color{red}{ shouldn't \space this \space be \space done \space as \space follows:}$$
$$w=\cos z=\frac{1}{2}\left(e^{x+iy}+e^{-(x+iy)}\right)=\frac{1}{2}e^x(\cos(y)+i\sin(y))+\frac{1}{2}e^{-x}(\cos(y)-i\sin(y))$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}\cos(y)\left(e^x+e^{-x}\right)+\frac{i}{2}\sin(y)\left(e^x-e^{-x}\right)$$ $$=\cosh(x)\cos(y)+i\sin(y)\sinh(x)$$
$$\color{green}{u=\cosh(x)\cos(y)\tag{1}}$$ and $$\color{green}{v=\sinh(x)\sin(y) \tag{2}}$$
we are only given constraints for $y$, therefore need to eliminate unknown $x$ in $(1)$ and $(2)$, and this should give us the region $y=k$ transforms to be:
$$\dfrac{u^2}{\cos^2(y)}-\dfrac{v^2}{\sin^2(y)}=\cosh^2(x)-\sinh^2(x)=1$$
$$\dfrac{u^2}{\cos^2(k)}-\dfrac{v^2}{\sin^2(k)}=1$$
$$\dfrac{u^2}{\alpha}-\dfrac{v^2}{\beta}=1$$
of which is a $hyperbola$ and not an $ellipse$ as suggested by 1
The quoted post has been giving me headaches and I just didn't know what to do about it.