Let $(X,\mathcal{J})$ be a topological space and let $Y\subset X$,
Define the collection $\mathcal{J}'$ of subsets of $Y$ as $\mathcal{O}'\subset Y$ of the form $\mathcal{O}'=\mathcal{O}\cap Y$ where $\mathcal{O}\in\mathcal{J}$
Then $(Y,\mathcal{J}')$ is a topological space - Provided $Y\ne \emptyset$
I am happy with the proof but it doesn't use $Y\ne\emptyset$ anywhere, and I can't see what would break if $Y$ were the nullset, yes it'd be a pretty useless topology, but useless topoligies are still topologies.
I'm sure $(\emptyset,\{\emptyset\})$ is a topological space because:
- The entire set is a member of the topology
- The null set is a member of the topology
- Finite intersections are closed
- Unions are closed
So why is it saying "Provided $Y\ne\emptyset$"
Book: Mendelson Introduction To Topology, Dover, page 92, chapter 3 proposition 6.2.
This is probably a really simple question, but it bothers me that I cannot see why he writes this, so I must find out! I would of course call such a topology useless, but as I said, useless topologies are still topologies!
Because this is not a good book. Use other book. The best one is Engelking's "General Topology"***
– user153330 Dec 31 '14 at 20:28