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Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ so that $f(xf(y)+f(x))=f(yf(x))+x$

$f(x)=\pm x$ should be the only solution. It's easy to get that $f(f(0))=f(0)$.

CryoDrakon
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2 Answers2

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First you can show that $f(0)=0$. Assume $f(0)=a$. Then you also have $f(a)=0$. If you use $x=y=a$, you arrive at $a=2a$ and therefore $a=0$. Now you can investigate the case $y=0$: $$f(f(x))=x$$ meaning that $f$ is an involution (and goes through the point (0,0)).

You can probably proceed from here.

orion
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  • It's east to see that letting $ x = y = 0 $ in the functional equation, we get $ f ( a ) = a $. But how do we know that $ f ( a ) = 0 $ which you have used to show $ a = 0 $? – Mohsen Shahriari Aug 21 '17 at 21:32
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Thank to @orion we know now that f is an involution, which means it's a bijection. Bcs f is an onto function we know there exists an b so that $f(b)=1$, and bcs $f(f(x))=x$ we get also $f(1)=b$.

$x\rightarrow 1, y \rightarrow 1 \Rightarrow f(2b)=2 \Rightarrow f(2)=2b$

$x\rightarrow b, y\rightarrow 1 \Rightarrow f(b^2+1)=2b$ Now we have $f(b^2+1)=2b=f(2)$ and there we get that $b=\pm 1$.

Let $f(1)=1$: $x\rightarrow 1, y\rightarrow t \Rightarrow f(f(t)+1)=f(t)+1$ and if we change $f(t)+1=k$ we get $f(k)=k$.

If $f(1)=-1$ we get $f(k)=-k$.

CryoDrakon
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