Let $a, b, c>1$. Show that: $$\frac{1}{1+\log_ab+log_bc}+\frac{1}{1+\log_bc+\log_ca}+\frac{1}{1+\log_ca+\log_ab}\leq1.$$
My attempt:
We noted $\log_bc=x, \log_ca=y, \log_ab=z$ with $xyz=1$ and we have reduced inequality at this time:$$2(x+y+z)\leq xy^2+x^2y+yz^2+y^2z+xz^2+x^2z.$$ Does anyone have idea how it goes? Thank You!
I found a simple continuation: $$2(x+y+z)\leq xy^2+x^2y+yz^2+y^2z+xz^2+x^2z\iff$$ $$\iff2(x+y+z)\leq xy(x+y)+yz(y+z)+zx(z+x)\iff$$ $$\iff2(x+y+z)\leq (xy+yz+zx)(x+y+z)-3xyz\iff$$ $$\iff3\leq(x+y+z)(xy+yz+zx-2).$$ The last inequality follows easily using: $$3\leq x+y+z$$ $$1=3(xyz)^{\frac{2}{3}} -2\leq xy+yz+zx-2.$$ These last inequality is obtained by applying AM-GM inequality.