Find all complex numbers such that: $$|z_1|=|z_2|=|z_3|$$ $$z_1+z_2+z_3=1$$ $$z_1\cdot z_2 \cdot z_3=1$$ There is solution with vectors or Vietes formulas. Can we solve this problem with using only algebra?
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Why not just write complex numbers $z_1=a_1+b_1i,z_2=a_2+b_2i,z_3=a_3+b_3i$ And try solving for $a_1,a_2,a_3,b_1,b_2,b_3$? – kingW3 Jan 15 '15 at 21:23
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to many variables in equations – chaos Jan 15 '15 at 21:26
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Try writing $z_k = e^{i\theta_k}$. – copper.hat Jan 15 '15 at 21:29
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@copper.hat Sorry, misread the question (thought it was $z_1+z_2+z_3=0$) – Mario Carneiro Jan 15 '15 at 21:42
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$i,-i,1$ is a solution. – Mario Carneiro Jan 15 '15 at 21:44
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@copper.hat Actually, that's not a solution - it fails the product formula. – Mario Carneiro Jan 15 '15 at 22:56
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@MarioCarneiro: Good catch. – copper.hat Jan 15 '15 at 23:02
3 Answers
Let $n=|z_1|=|z_2|=|z_3|$. Then $n^3=|z_1z_2z_3|=1$, so $n=1$ and the $z_k$ have unit modulus. Since $z_1=z_2=z_3$ implies $1=|z_1+z_2+z_3|=|3z_1|=3$, and the equations are unchanged under permutations of the $z$'s, we can assume WLOG that $z_3\ne1$. Then let $z_k'=\frac{z_k}{1-z_3}$ and $z_4'=\frac1{1-z_3}$, so that:
$$z_1+z_2+z_3=1\implies \frac{z_1+z_2}{1-z_3}=z_1'+z_2'=1$$
Note that $|z_1'|=|z_2'|=|z_3'|=|z_4'|$. Solving for $z_2'$ and multiplying by the conjugate, we get:
$$|z_2'|^2=|1-z_1'|^2=1-z_1'-\bar z_1'+|z_1'|^2\implies z_1'+\bar z_1'=1$$
So $z_2'=\bar z_1'$. Since it is also true that $-z_3'+z_4'=1$ and $|z_3'|=|z_4'|$, in an exactly equivalent manner we get $-z_3'=\bar z_4'$. Finally, to relate these pairs to each other:
$$(z_1'-\bar z_1')^2=(z_1'+\bar z_1')^2-4|z_1'|^2=(z_4'+\bar z_4')^2-4|z_4'|^2=(z_4'-\bar z_4')^2$$
where the central equality is due to $z_1'+\bar z_1'=1=z_4'+\bar z_4'$ and $|z_1'|=|z_4'|$. Thus either $$z_1'-\bar z_1'=z_4'-\bar z_4'\implies 2z_1'-1=2z_4'-1\implies z_1'=z_4'$$ or $$-(z_1'-\bar z_1')=z_4'-\bar z_4'\implies 2z_2'-1=2z_4'-1\implies z_2'=z_4'.$$
Using our remaining permutation freedom of $z_1,z_2$, we can assume WLOG that $z_1'=z_4'$. Then applying the definitions, we get $\frac1{1-z_3}=\frac{z_1}{1-z_3}\implies z_1=1$, and so $z_2=-z_3$.
We still have yet to use the third equation, $z_1z_2z_3=1$, and we do so now. Since $z_1=1$, this reduces to $z_2^2=-1$, so $z_2=i$ and $z_3=-i$ or vice versa.
Thus up to permutations, $\{z_1,z_2,z_3\}=\{1,i,-i\}$ is the unique solution.
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since $z_1, z_2, z_3$ are on the unit circle and $z_1z_2z_3 = 1$ we can take $$z_1 = e^{it}, z_2 =e^{is} \text{ and } z_3 = e^{-i(s+t)}, 0 \le t \le s < 2\pi \text{ and } t + s \le 2\pi$$
the third condition says $$ e^{it} + e^{is} + e^{-i(s+t)} = 1 \tag 1$$
imaginary part of $(1)$ is
$\begin{align} 0 &=\sin t + \sin s - \sin(s+t) \\ &= 2\sin (t/2+s/2)(\cos(s/2-t/2) - \cos(s/2+t/2)\\ &= 4\sin (t/2+s/2)\sin s/2 \sin t/2\\ \end{align}$ the possible solutions are $$t = 0, s = 0, t + s = 0, t+s = 2\pi$$
the real part of $(1)$ is
$$ \cos t + \cos s + \cos(t+s) = 1 \tag 2$$
case $t = 0$
from $(2)$ we get $\cos s = 0,$ so $s = \pi/2, s = 3\pi/2$ that is $$z_1 = 1, z_2 = \pm i, z_3 = \mp i $$
case $s = 0$
we also have $t=0$ and $(2)$ cannot be satisfied.
case $t+s = 2\pi$
from $(2),$ we get $\cos t + \cos t + 1 = 1$ so $\cos t = 0$ which gives you $t = \pi/2, s = 3\pi/2$
$$z_1 = \pm i, z_2 = \mp i, z_3 = 1 $$
the complete solutions is the triples $$ 1, i, -i $$
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In more general case: $|z|^2=z\bar{z}$
We have $$z_1z_2z_3=1\,\,\,(1)$$ so we have also $$\bar{z_1}\bar{z_2}\bar{z_3}=1\,\,\,(2)$$ Multiplying $(1)$ and $(2)$ we get: $|z_1|^2|z_2|^2|z_3|^2=1$ thus $|z_1|=|z_2|=|z_3|$. Thus: $z_k=e^{i\theta_k}$
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You might want to index with a different letter, since $i$ also denotes the complex unit. How is $|z|^2$ a more general case? – graydad Jan 15 '15 at 21:31
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This is not a solution. It is easy to see that the $z_k$ have unit modulus, but you still need to solve for the angles. (I'm not a downvoter.) – copper.hat Jan 15 '15 at 21:32
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@copper.hat After proving $z_k=e^{i\theta_k}$, the third equation we get $\theta_1+\theta_2+\theta_3=0+k\pi$ and from the second one which becomes $z_1+z_2=1-z_3$ we can use the formula $e^{ix}+e^{iy}=2cos\left(\frac{x-y}{2}\right) e^{i\frac{x+y}{2}}$ and so arguments and modulus are equal. – Scientifica Jan 15 '15 at 21:38
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@graydad sorry just read your comment didn't see it. Yeah I'll change the index. Write $z=x+iy$ and you'll know why $z\bar{z}=|z|^2$. – Scientifica Jan 15 '15 at 21:41