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Let $G$ be a group of order 21 .Question is whether it is abelian or not?

Number of Sylow 3 subgroups =1+3k divides 7 hence k=0 or k=2.Number of Sylow 7 subgroups=1+7k divides 3 hence k=0.In both cases if we get a unique sylow 3 and a unique sylow 7 subgroup we are done that the group is abelian using Internal Direct Property of groups .

But what if number of Sylow 3 subgroups is 7??It does not contradict anything here we have 2*7+7=21 elements i.e works fine

Can I extend this arguement to conclude my proposition or I need something else.Please help

Learnmore
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  • See http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/368194/is-every-group-of-order-21-cyclic –  Jan 16 '15 at 04:54

1 Answers1

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The group has order $3\times 7$, and we know there exists at least one Sylow $3$-subgroup and at least one Sylow $7$-subgroup (here we can "just" use Cauchy's theorem that if $p\mid |G|$ there exists a subgroup of order $p$ in $G$. Sylow generalizes this to any power of $p$). Moreover, (one of) the Sylow $7$-subgroup has index $3$, and since $3$ is the least prime divisor of $21^1$, this subgroup must be normal, so it is unique; call it $Q$. Let $P$ be a Sylow $3$-subgroup. Then $QP$ is all of $G$: since $(3,7)=1$, $Q\cap P=1$, and hence $|QP|=|Q\cap P||QP|=|Q||P|=21$. It follows $G$ is a semidirect product $G=P\rtimes Q$, and we know that ${\rm Aut}\; Q=C_6$. Since $3$ divides $6$, we can produce nontrivial group homomoprhisms $\eta:C_3\to C_6$; and they will all give rise to a (unique) nonabelian group of order $21$.


$1$. If $G$ is a group of finite order, and $H$ has index $p$ where $p$ is the least prime divisor of $G$, then $H$ must be normal: the action of $G$ on the (say left) cosets of $H$ gives us a morphism $\eta:G\to S_p$ that induces an injection $\bar\eta:G/\ker\eta\to S_p$. This means the index $|G:\ker \eta|$ which equals $ |G:H||H:\ker \eta|=p|H:\ker \eta|$ divides $p!$, or that $|H:\ker \eta|$ divides $(p-1)!$. But $|H:\ker\eta|$ divides $G$, so if $|H:\ker \eta|\neq 1$, we would have prime factors from $G$ in $(p-1)!$, which has prime factors strictly smaller than $p$. It follows that $|H:\ker \eta|=1$, that is $H=\ker \eta\lhd G$, being a kernel of a morphism.

Pedro
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  • Well I am still new to abstract algebra and have not yet read metacyclic groups .There isn't any chapter in my book as well.Which books to study for this .Kindly answer – Learnmore Jan 16 '15 at 06:15
  • one more thing what is $P$ in your answer? – Learnmore Jan 16 '15 at 06:18
  • @learnmore The name "metacylic group" is probably the least important remark in the answer, and I might as well delete it. "Let P be a Sylow 3-subgroup." – Pedro Jan 16 '15 at 08:02