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If $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ is finite and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n$ is also finite, why is it that you can add the two series term by term and get the sum of the two series? Surely this is reordering the series.

Thomas Andrews
  • 177,126

2 Answers2

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The $N$:th partial sum $$ \sum_{n=1}^N (a_n+b_n) = \sum_{n=1}^N a_n + \sum_{n=1}^N b_n. $$ Hence, as $N \to \infty$, \begin{align} \lim_{N\to\infty} \sum_{n=1}^N (a_n+b_n) &= \lim_{N\to\infty} \left(\sum_{n=1}^N a_n + \sum_{n=1}^N b_n \right) \\ &= \lim_{N\to\infty} \sum_{n=1}^N a_n + \lim_{N\to\infty} \sum_{n=1}^N b_n \end{align} since both limits exist by assumption.

mrf
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7

If $(x_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ and $(y_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converge, $$\lim_{n\to\infty } (x_n+y_n)=\lim_{n\to\infty }x_n+\lim_{n\to\infty }y_n.$$

Set $x_n=\sum_{k=1}^n a_k$ and $y_{n}=\sum_{k=1}^n b_k$ and you'll get your result.

idm
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