This likely isn’t quite the way that whoever wrote the problem had in mind, but both directions are straightforward to prove using pole/polar relations: the polar line of a point external to the hyperbola contains the chord of contact.
Write the equation of the hyperbola in matrix form as $$\mathbf x^TC\mathbf x=\begin{bmatrix}x&y&1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\frac1{a^2}&0&0\\0&-\frac1{b^2}&0\\0&0&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}x\\y\\1\end{bmatrix}=0.$$ Using homogeneous coordinates, a point $\mathbf p$ lies on the line $\mathbf l$ iff $\mathbf p^T\mathbf l=0$. (This is just the point-normal form of the equation of a line written a bit differently.) The polar line of a point $\mathbf p$ is $C\mathbf p$ and the pole of a line $\mathbf l$ is $C^{-1}\mathbf l$. The former is the same as the formula that you have for the chord of contact for the point $(x_0,y_0)$.
So, for the first part, we need to verify that each focus lies on the polar line of a point $(\pm a/e,y)$ on the corresponding directrix: $$\begin{bmatrix}\pm a e&0&1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\frac1{a^2}&0&0\\0&-\frac1{b^2}&0\\0&0&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\pm\frac ae\\y\\1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}\pm a e&0&1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\pm\frac1{ae}\\-\frac y{b^2}\\-1\end{bmatrix}=0.\qquad\checkmark$$
For the other direction, we take an arbitrary line $\mathbf l=[\lambda:\mu:\mp \lambda ae]$ through the focus $(\pm ae,0)$ and compute its pole. The resulting point must lie on the corresponding directrix, i.e., on the line $[1:0:\mp a/e]$. $$\begin{bmatrix}1&0&\mp\frac ae\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a^2&0&0\\0&-b^2&0\\0&0&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\lambda\\\mu\\\mp\lambda ae\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}1&0&\mp\frac ae\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\lambda a^2\\-\mu b^2\\\pm\lambda ae\end{bmatrix}=0.\qquad\checkmark$$
In fact, a focus and its corresponding directrix form a pole-polar pair: $$\begin{bmatrix}\frac1{a^2}&0&0\\0&-\frac1{b^2}&0\\0&0&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}\pm ae\\0\\1\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}\pm\frac ea\\0\\-1\end{bmatrix}.$$ The homogeneous vector on the right-hand side is equivalent to the Cartesian equation $\pm\frac eax-1=0$, or $x=\pm\frac ae$.
I attempted to find the equation of the tangents separately, then solve them simultaneously to find the abscissa but I couldn't not arrive at the expression.
– Justin HT Jan 24 '15 at 11:04Making $y$ the subject of equation (1) and substitute to (2)then do a bit of simplification give:
\begin{align} \frac{x\sec\beta }{a} + \frac{\tan\beta}{\tan\alpha} - \frac{x \tan\beta}{a \sin\alpha} =1 \end{align}
and then I'm not sure did I commit an error somewhere, if not how to continue.
– Justin HT Jan 24 '15 at 11:25