The question is Find all functions $f:\mathbb R \to\mathbb R$ such that
$$f(x+y)f(x-y)=\big(f(x)+f(y)\big)^2-4x^2f(y)$$
Taking $x=y=0$, we get $f(0)^2=4f(0)^2 \implies f(0)=0$. Now take $x=y$ which immediately gives
$$4f(x)^2=4x^2f(x)\\
\implies f(x)(f(x)-x^2)=0\\
\implies f(x)=0 \text{ or } f(x)=x^2 \ \forall x \in \mathbb R$$ This was my solution. But I was stunned when I looked at the official solution.

Why do we need to continue to do anything after getting what I got, isn't it sufficient?