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Finished a homework problem concerning polynomials with all real coefficients and why complex roots of p(z)=0 come in pairs. Curious is there is a similar situation for polynomials with all purely imaginary coefficients. I can't figure this one out.

Never used this site before. If this is incorrectly place, my apologies.

1 Answers1

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For every non-zero complex number $a$ and every polynomial $P$ the roots of $P$ and $aP$ are the same. Applying this with $a=i$ answers your question.

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