I'm trying to prove the statement given in the question title, and I'm unsure as to whether my approach is valid. A confirmation of my approach or a correction with a hint pointing me in the right direction would be most appreciated!
My approach:
Any URM program that computes a function can be specified by a finite number of lines of code. The URM has a 4-element instruction set. Any given line of code is either $Z(i)$ which zeroes the given register, $S(i)$ which increments the given register, $T(i, j)$ which transfers the value of register i to register j, and $J(i, j, k)$ which jumps to line k in the code provided that the values stored in registers i and j are equal. We can think of Z(i) and S(i) as points in $\mathbb{N}$, $T(i, j)$ as a point in $\mathbb{N}^2$, and $J(i, j, k)$ as a point in $\mathbb{N}^3$. Since $\mathbb{N}$, $\mathbb{N}^2$, and $\mathbb{N}^3$ are all countable, the number of possible instructions for any given line of code is the union of these four sets which is countable. Since there is a bijection between the number of lines of code in a URM-Program and $\mathbb{N}$, the total number of possible URM-programs is the countable union of countably many instruction sets which is countable. I would then go on to prove that there are an uncountable number of functions $f: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{N}$.