Ah this is quite nice since the answer that comes out is quite intuitive. Anyway you just apply Bayes' theorem, to get (for $0\leq k \leq m$):
$$
\begin{aligned}
\Pr\left[Y_1 = k \bigg\vert \sum_{i=1}^n Y_i = m\right] &= \frac{\Pr\left[Y_1 = k \cap \sum_{i=1}^n Y_i = m\right]}{\Pr\left[\sum_{i=1}^n Y_i = m\right]} \\
&= \frac{\Pr\left[Y_1 = k \cap \sum_{i=2}^n Y_i = m-k\right]}{\Pr\left[\sum_{i=1}^n Y_i = m\right]} \\
&= \frac{\Pr\left[Y_1 = k \right]\Pr\left[\sum_{i=2}^n Y_i = m-k\right]}{\Pr\left[\sum_{i=1}^n Y_i = m\right]}
\end{aligned} $$
In the final equality we used the independence of $Y_1$ and $\sum_{i=2}^k Y_i $.
Now you know all of the above expressions, since
$Y_1 \sim \mathrm{Pois}(\lambda_1)$, $\sum_{i=2}^n Y_i \sim \mathrm{Pois}(\sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i)$ and $\sum_{i=1}^n Y_i \sim \mathrm{Pois}(\sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i)$.
Plugging all of this in will finally yield:
$$ Y_1 \bigg\vert \sum_{i=1}^n Y_i = m \sim Bin\left(m, \frac{\lambda_1}{\sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i}\right) $$