One definition I find of a Boolean algebra in the book that I am following (V. Manca, Logica matematica, 'matematical logic') is determined by the binary operations $\land$ and $\lor$ and the unary operation $\lnot$ on a set such that $$\varphi\land(\psi\land \chi)=(\varphi\land \psi)\land \chi,\quad \varphi\lor(\psi\lor \chi)=(\varphi\lor \psi)\lor \chi$$ $$\varphi\land \psi=\psi\land \varphi,\quad \varphi\lor \psi=\psi\lor \varphi$$ $$\varphi\lor (\psi\land \chi) = (\varphi\lor \psi) \land (\varphi \lor \chi) ,\quad \varphi \land (\psi\lor \chi) = (\varphi \land \psi) \lor (\varphi \land \chi) $$ $$\varphi \lor (\varphi \land \psi) = \varphi,\quad \varphi\land (\varphi\lor \psi) = \varphi$$ $$\varphi\land 0 =0,\quad \varphi\lor1=1$$ $$\varphi\lor\lnot \varphi=0,\quad \varphi\land\lnot \varphi=1$$
Another definition that I find in the same text is that a Boolean algebra is a complemented distributive lattice, i.e. a lattice where a maximum $1$ and a minimum $0$ exist and such that for all its elements $x$ there is an element $x'$ such that$$\inf(\{x,x'\})=0\text{ and }\sup(\{x,x'\})=1$$ and where the $\inf$ and the $\sup$ operations are distributive with respect to each other.
I wonder whether any Boolean algebra according to one of the two definitions is "isomorphic" in any way to a Boolean algebra according to the first definition and I think that I have been able to prove that a partial order can be defined on a Boolean algebra by letting $\varphi\le\psi\equiv\varphi\lor\psi=\psi$. Moreover, I think I have been to prove that, by letting $x\land y:=\inf(\{x,y\})$, $x\lor y:=\sup(\{x,y\})$ and $\lnot x:=x'$ a complemented distributive lattice is a Boolean algebra in the first definition.
There is one thing missing to prove that the two definitions are equivalent: how can we see that $\varphi\land\psi$ is the greatest lower bound of $\{\varphi,\psi\}$ and that $\varphi\lor\psi$ is the lowest upper bound of $\{\varphi,\psi\}$? I thank you very much for any answer!!!
*I have found all the axioms quite easily proved to be satisfied by a complemented distributive lattice, except for $$\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})=\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})\text{ and }\sup(\{\sup(\{x,y\}),z\})=\sup(\{x,\sup(\{y,z\})\})$$ but I think the following proves it.
Clearly$$\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})\le x,y,z\text{ and }\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})\le x,y,z.$$Therefore $\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})$ is a lower bound of $\{y,z\}$ and $\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})\le\inf(\{y,z\})$, by definition of $\inf$, which is the greatest lower bound, and, then, $\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})$, which is not greater than $z$, is a lower bound of $\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\}$: we have that $\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})\le\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})$. But $\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})$ is a lower bound of $\{x,y\}$ and $\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})\le\inf(\{x,y\})$, and therefore, since $\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})\le z$, we have that $\inf(\{x,\inf(\{y,z\})\})\le\inf(\{\inf(\{x,y\}),z\})$. Repeating the same reasoning with $\sup$, $\ge$, upper and small-er/-est substituting $\inf$, $\le$, lower and great-er/-est proves that $\sup(\{\sup(\{x,y\}),z\})=\sup(\{x,\sup(\{y,z\})\})$.