As I know if $$\partial f/\partial y=\partial f/\partial x$$ then f(x,y) is conservative, but there are two counterexamples $$\vec F=\frac{-y\hat\imath+x\hat\jmath}{x^2+y^2}$$ and $$\vec F=\hat\jmath$$
I know there is an similiar question easy question about conservative vector fields
But I still don't understand these two counterexamples contradict with $\partial f/\partial y=\partial f/\partial x$
Can anyone show me how these two counterexamples are non conversative?
thanks