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$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+a^2}}\,dx$$

I subbed in $x=a \tan\theta$ and ended up with $\ln|\sec\theta+\tan\theta|$. Is this correct?

Thanks.

rae306
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4 Answers4

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Here, you can just use the fact that the integrand is very close to $|\frac 1 x |$. Specifically, break up the integral into the regions from $-\infty$ to $|a|$, then from $|a|$ to $\infty$. Both are nonnegative, so if the latter is unbounded above, so is the whole function. Now, in the second region, $x^2\ge a^2$, so $\sqrt {x^2 +x^2}>\sqrt {x^2 +a^2}$, hence $\frac 1 {\sqrt {2x^2}}<\frac 1 {\sqrt {x^2 +a^2}}$, thus your integral is bigger than $\int _{|a|} ^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt 2}\cdot \frac 1 xdx=\infty $

So by comparison, your integral diverges

Alan
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Yes, now resub $\theta=\arctan(x/a)$, clean up and solve the definite integral.

rae306
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  • Ah but that gives infinities inside the natural logarithm, so the integral is undefined? – user140591 Feb 13 '15 at 23:08
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    Consider that your integrand is very close to the absolute value of $\frac 1 x$, one would expect the integral to be unbounded as it is very close to the harmonic series – Alan Feb 13 '15 at 23:48
  • Why not just say that as $x$ goes from $-\infty$ to $\infty$ then $\theta$ goes from $-\pi/2$ to $\pi/2$, so you don't need to "resub"? ${}\qquad{}$ – Michael Hardy Feb 13 '15 at 23:55
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You have the right antiderivative. As $\theta$ approaches $\pi/2$ from below, both $\sec\theta$ and $\tan\theta$ go up to $+\infty$. As $\theta$ approaches $-\pi/2$ from above, then $\tan\theta$ goes to $-\infty$ and $\sec\theta$ goes to $+\infty$ and when that happens, the limit can be anything, depending on which functions are involved. One way to find that limit is to write $$ \sec\theta+\tan\theta = \frac{1+\sin\theta}{\cos\theta} $$ and then the numerator and denominator both go to $0$, so L'Hopital's rule can be used, and it shows the limit is $-\infty$. Another way is via the tangent half-angle formula $$ \sec\theta+\tan\theta = \tan\left(\frac\theta2+\frac\pi4\right). $$

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for $a \gt 0$ $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+a^2}}\,dx = 2 \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+a^2}}\,dx \\ \\ \ge 2 \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+2ax+a^2}}\,dx = 2\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{x+a}\,dx $$

David Holden
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