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$f(\lambda x + (1-\lambda y) \leq \lambda f(x) + (1- \lambda) f(y)$. This is the definition of convexity I am used to. If $f$ is a convex function, then $f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$.

What if I am doing something like $f : \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$? Is the definition of convexity different or is it still the same?

So instead of $f(x)$ I had $f(x,y)$. If the definition is different what would it look like then?

1 Answers1

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No, the definition is formally the same, namely \begin{align*} f(\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y)\leq\lambda f(x)+(1-\lambda)f(y),\qquad x,y\in\mathbb R^2,\lambda\in[0,1]. \end{align*} Note that here $x$ and $y$ are points in $\mathbb R^2$ and $\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y$ runs along the line joining $x$ and $y$ when $\lambda$ runs through $[0,1]$.

sranthrop
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