Prove that $ \cos x - \cos y = -2 \sin \left( \frac{x-y}{2} \right) \sin \left( \frac{x+y}{2} \right) $ without knowing cos identity
We don't know that $ \cos0 = 1 $
We don't know that $ \cos^2 x + \sin^2 x = 1 $
I have managed to prove it using the above facts, but just realised that I can't use them. Now I have been going in circles for a while.
Any ideas how to prove this or even approach it?
Thanks !