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Let $\alpha = (\alpha_1 \, \alpha_2 \, \ldots \, \alpha_s)$ be a cycle, for positive integers $\alpha_1 , \alpha_2 , \ldots , \alpha_s$. Let $\pi$ be any permutation. Show that $\pi \alpha \pi^{-1}$ is the cycle $(\pi(\alpha_1) \, \pi(\alpha_2) \, \ldots \, \pi(\alpha_s))$.

I started by choosing a specific $\alpha$ and $\pi$, and tried finding $\pi \alpha \pi^{-1}$ to give myself some idea of what to do but have had no luck. Tips?

Anurag A
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FlickS
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1 Answers1

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Define $\alpha_{s + 1} := \alpha_1$ and consider that $\alpha$ only moves elements $\alpha_\ell$.

So as what does an element $\beta$ reach $\alpha$ through $\pi^{-1}$? Or asked another way: when is an element $\beta$ transformed by $\pi^{-1}$ into an $\alpha_\ell$?

Consider $(\pi^{-1}(\beta) = \alpha_\ell) \equiv (\beta = \pi(a_\ell))$ and so $(\pi\circ \alpha\circ \pi^{-1})(\pi(\alpha_\ell)) = (\pi\circ \alpha)(a_\ell) = \pi(a_{\ell + 1})$. Thus every element $\pi(\alpha_\ell)$ is mapped to $\pi(a_{\ell + 1})$. Now, just write this down in cycle notation and you have your result.

Do you get the idea? Perhaps my exposition is to sparse?

Moritz
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  • I sort of do. It was easier to see it visually from what @Jyrki posted. Since π∘α∘π−1 generated the next element in the cycle we could say that (π∘α∘π−1) is in-fact the cycle? I am still sort of confused. – FlickS Mar 04 '15 at 15:53