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Assume that $\zeta$ is a positive real number and $a = \frac{2 \pi}{\alpha_{\text{max}}}$ for $0 < \alpha_{\text{max}} < \frac{\pi}{2}$. In other words $a > 4$.

Is there a special function that when evaluated in a certain point is equal to

$$\int_0^{2 \pi} \textrm{e}^{i \zeta \cos(ax + \phi)} \, \sin^2(ax) \, \mathrm{d}x?$$

If $a$ would be a nice and an integer life would be good. Now I don't know!

JT_NL
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1 Answers1

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For $a\in\mathbb{Z}$, we have $$ \int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(ax+\phi)}\,\sin^2(ax)\,\mathrm{d}x=\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x+\phi)}\,\sin^2(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\tag{1} $$ Mathematica says that this is $$ \frac{2\pi}{\zeta}\operatorname{BesselJ}(1,\zeta)=\frac{2\pi}{\zeta}\operatorname{J}_1(\zeta)\tag{2} $$ for $\zeta\in\mathbb{R}^+$.


It appears that Mathematica is not correct; i.e. The integral in $(1)$ is not independent of $\phi$ as $(2)$ would indicate. For now, we will keep the same assumptions ($a\in\mathbb{Z}$ and $\zeta\in\mathbb{R}^+$). We will also use $$ \begin{align} \int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x)}\cos(nx)\,\mathrm{d}x&=2\pi\,i^nJ_n(\zeta)\\ \int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x)}\sin(nx)\,\mathrm{d}x&=0 \end{align}\tag{3} $$ for $n\in\mathbb{Z}$. $$ \begin{align} &\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x+\phi)}\,\sin^2(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x)}\,\sin^2(x-\phi)\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x)}\frac12(1-\cos(2(x-\phi)))\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i\zeta\cos(x)}\frac12(1-\cos(2x)\cos(2\phi)-\sin(2x)\sin(2\phi))\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &=\pi(J_0(\zeta)+\cos(2\phi)J_2(\zeta))\tag{4} \end{align} $$
robjohn
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    I will look into $a\not\in\mathbb{Z}$. – robjohn Mar 08 '12 at 14:04
  • That would be nice :-). As I know this one ;-). I'm still a bit puzzled about your scaling though... – JT_NL Mar 08 '12 at 17:18
  • I am puzzled about $\xi$ and $\zeta$. Is it a typo? – SBF Mar 08 '12 at 18:09
  • @Ilya If they would be the same, the integrals wouldn't be... I'm wondering. – JT_NL Mar 08 '12 at 18:37
  • @Ilya: yes, I misread the $\zeta$ as a $\xi$. It is now fixed. Thanks. – robjohn Mar 08 '12 at 18:53
  • @Jonas: re scaling: If $a\in\mathbb{Z}$, then substituting $x\to x/a$ changes the range of integration to $[0,2\pi a]$ and that is offset by the $\mathrm{d}x/a$ (multiply by $a$ and divide by $a$, if I am not mistaken). – robjohn Mar 08 '12 at 18:57
  • I think Mathematica is joking. The result is not independent on $\phi$, I'm sure. – JT_NL Mar 08 '12 at 19:32
  • @Jonas The result would be independent only if the derivative is zero everywhere. Have you tried Maple? The substitution by Rob looks perfectly fine for me. – SBF Mar 08 '12 at 21:26
  • @Ilya The derivative is not zero. The substitution is now fine, there was $\phi/a$. – JT_NL Mar 08 '12 at 21:35