I'M SORRY, THIS ANSWER WAS BROKEN. In fact, $(\dagger)$ does not imply $(\ast)$. I'll leave it up for now, until I've figured out what best to do with it.
The point of this answer is to provide a reduction to a different polynomial inequality. Although I can't prove this inequality either, I am more optimistic about it, because it is quadratic in the $S_n$, instead of cubic like Ewan's, and because I can show it is logically equivalent to Ewan's inequality.
Let's recall that Ewan's inequality is
$$-S_{n-1}^2 S_{n-2} + 2 S_n S_{n-2}^2 - S_{n} S_{n-1} S_{n-3} \geq 0 \quad (\ast).$$
The point of this answer is to show that $(\ast)$ is logically equivalent to
$$\frac{n-1}{n} S_{n-1}^2 \leq S_n S_{n-2}. (\dagger)$$
For $2 \leq n \leq 30$, I've checked the stronger statement that the coefficients of $S_n S_{n-2} - \frac{n-1}{n} S_{n-1}^2$ are positive.
Proof that $(\ast)$ implies $(\dagger)$: Dividing by $S_n S_{n-1} S_{n-2}$, $(\ast)$ is
$$0 \leq - \frac{S_{n-1}}{S_n} + 2 \frac{S_{n-2}}{S_{n-1}} - \frac{S_{n-3}}{S_{n-2}} = \frac{d}{dx} \left( \log \frac{S_{n-1}^2}{S_{n} S_{n-2}} \right)$$
So $(\ast)$ is equivalent to the claim that $\frac{S_{n-1}^2}{S_{n} S_{n-2}}$ is increasing. We note that $\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{S_{n-1}^2}{S_{n} S_{n-2}} = \frac{n}{n-1}$ so, if $(\ast)$ holds, then $\frac{S_{n-1}^2}{S_{n} S_{n-2}} \leq \frac{n}{n-1}$ for all $x$, which rearranges to $(\dagger)$. $\square$
Incidentally, we can also use this to give another proof that $(\ast)$ is equivalent to the original inequality: $\frac{S_{n-1}^2}{S_{n} S_{n-2}} = \frac{S_{n-1}/S_{n}}{S_{n-2}/S_{n-1}}$. If $f(x)/g(x)$ is increasing, then so is $\int_0^y f(x) dx/\int_0^y g(x) dx$ (see, for example, [here][1]). So $\frac{\int S_{n-1}/S_{n}}{\int S_{n-2}/S_{n-1}} = \frac{\log S_{n}}{\log S_{n-1}}$ is increasing.
Proof that $(\dagger)$ implies $(\ast)$. Starting with $(\dagger)$, multiply by $S_n S_{n-2} x^{2n-2}/(n! (n-1)!)$ to get
$$S_n S_{n-1}^2 S_{n-2} \frac{x^n x^{n-2}}{n! (n-2)!} \geq \frac{(x^{n-1})^2}{(n-1)!^2} S_n^2 S_{n-2}^2.$$
I miscopied the sign at this step; the inequality in the middle should point the other way. I've deleted the steps after this, but the idea was to get to do some algebra, get to an AM-GM, and then do some more algebra. Since the AM-GM is the only non-reversible step, this means we can't prove $(\ast)$ by this route.
In other words,
$$(1/2) (x^n/n! S_{n-1} S_{n-2} + x^{n-2}/(n-2)! S_n S_{n-1}) \geq S_n (x^{n-1}/(n-1)!) S_{n-2} \quad (\ast \ast)$$
is presumably true, since it is logically equivalent to $(\ast)$. But
$$\sqrt{x^n/n! S_{n-1} S_{n-2} \cdot x^{n-2}/(n-2)! S_n S_{n-1}} \geq S_n (x^{n-1}/(n-1)!) S_{n-2}$$
is false already for $n=2$. So any attempt to prove $(\ast \ast)$ must do something more gentle than AM-GM.