I have the following maximization objective function related to a svm \begin{align} \max_{\gamma,\omega,b} & \ \frac{\hat{\gamma}}{\|\omega\|}\\ \mbox{s.t. } & \ \ \ y^{(i)}(\omega^{T}x^{(i)} + b) \geq \hat{\gamma}, \ \ i = 1, \ldots m \end{align}
Then the author says that:
$\mbox{maximizing } \hat{\gamma}/ \|\omega\| = 1/\|\omega\| $
is the same as minimizing: $\|\omega\|^2$, why is this?
and that our final optimization function is: \begin{align} \max_{\gamma,\omega,b} & \ \frac{1}{2}\|\omega\|^2\\ \mbox{s.t. } & \ \ \ y^{(i)}(\omega^{T}x^{(i)} + b) \geq 1, \ \ i = 1, \ldots m \end{align}
For what I see he considers that $\gamma=1$, but if I replace directly I will end up with: $\max 1/\|\omega\|$, but from where the author raises $\|\omega\|$ to the power of $2$ and divided by $2$. Is he integrating $\|\omega\|$?
Any help?