I have a model to fit but I am not sure if it is correct:
Is $\exp(ax+bz+c)^d$ algebraically the same as $\exp(dax+dbz+dc)$?
Edit
what about this one?
Is $[exp(ax+bz+c)+j]^d$ algebraically the same as as $[exp(dax+dbz+dc)+dj]$
Where a,b,c,j,d are parameters for non-linear regression fit.
If so, why? Can you explain please?