Great question! The answer is indeed no, but it's a bit subtle - in particular, I think the existing answer + comment thread, while in the right direction, doesn't quite "stick the landing." I've sketched the argument, with a few hints (trying to keep the length down so the idea is clear).
First, I need to formalize the notion of a Turing machine "picking" between two reals:
Definition. A set $X\subseteq\omega$ is discernible if there is some $e$ such that, for all $Y\subseteq \omega$ with $Y\not=X$, $\Phi_e^{X\oplus Y}=0$ and $\Phi_e^{Y\oplus X}=1$. Think of "$0$" and "$1$" as meaning "Left" and "Right," here.
Proposition. $X$ is discernible iff $X$ is computable. In particular, the Halting Problem is not discernible.
Proof. Fix $X$ noncomputable; we'll show $X$ is not discernible (the other direction of course is trivial). The key is to think about Turing computations as acting on finitely much of the oracles.
For $\sigma, \tau\in 2^{<\omega}$, say $\sigma$ beats $\tau$ - and write "$\sigma\sqsupset\tau$" - if $\Phi_e^{\sigma\oplus\tau}=0$. (Here I use the convention that $\Phi_e^\alpha$ diverges if it ever attempts to query the oracle past the first $\vert\alpha\vert$-many bits, for $\alpha$ a finite string.).
Is $0$ in $X$?
Say that $\sigma\in 2^{<\omega}$ is $0$-definitive if $$\{\tau\in 2^{<\omega}: \tau(0)\not=\sigma(0), \sigma\sqsupset\tau\}$$ is finite. Clearly if $\sigma$ is $0$-definitive, then $\sigma(0)=X(0)$ (why?), and the set of $0$-definitive $\sigma$s is r.e. (why?).
The key point is that there exists a $0$-definitive $\sigma$! Why? Well, let $$Bad(0)=\{\tau\in 2^{<\omega}: \tau(0)\not=X(0), \not\exists\sigma\prec X(\sigma\sqsupset\tau)\}$$ be the set of strings which are not beaten by any initial segment of $X$, but are also wrong about $0$. The set $Bad(0)$ is a tree, and any infinite path through $Bad(0)$ would be the characteristic function of a set $Y$ such that $Y\not=X$ but $\Phi_e^{X\oplus Y}\not=0$; so by Weak Konig's Lemma, $Bad(0)$ is finite.
But then we can find a single $\sigma\prec X$ such that for all $\tau\not\in Bad(0)$ with $\tau(0)\not=X(0)$, $\sigma\sqsupset\tau$! (Why? Note that $\sigma\sqsupset\tau$ and $\tau\prec\tau'$ implies $\sigma\sqsupset\tau'$.) But then this $\sigma$ is $0$-definitive.
So there is a $0$-definitive string $\sigma$. Since the set of $0$-definitive strings is r.e., we just wait until we see one - and then look at what its first bit is.
Is $n+1$ in $X$?
We compute the rest of $X$ inductively: after determining the first $n$ bits of $X$, we look at only those strings which so far are correct: e.g. which agree with $X$ on the first $n$ bits.