Assume F, G, M, and N are Laurent polynomials over $\mathbb{R}$, with coefficients either 0 or 1. Assume that $F \neq M$, and that we have $$F(X^{2^n})G(X^{-1})=M(X^{2^n})N(X^{-1}),$$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}, n\geq1$.
I want to show that we have $F(X)G(X^{-1}) \neq M(X)N(X^{-1})$. Unfortunately, I have no idea how this can be proved, except maybe in the case $n=1$ (I'm not even sure this conjecture is valid). In that case, my reasoning is as follows:
We have $F(X^2)G(X^{-1})=M(X^2)N(X^{-1})$, which is also valid over the finite field $\mathbb{F}_2$. In this field $F(X^2)=F(X)^2$, thus we get $F(X)^2G(X^{-1})=M(X)^2N(X^{-1})$. If we assume $F(X)G(X^{-1}) = M(X)N(X^{-1})$, then we have $F(X)=M(X)$ which is a contradiction.
My questions are: is this a valid proof ? Can it be extended to the general case ?