Q/ Let $f: X \rightarrow \bar{\mathbb{R}}$ be measurable on a $\sigma$-finite measure space $(X,\mathscr{A},\mu)$. Show that the set $\{x\in \mathbb{R} :\mu(f^{-1}(x))>0\}$ is countable.
So since we know we can write $X=\cup_1^{\infty} A_i$ with $A_i \in \mathscr{A}$ and $\mu(A_i)<\infty$ for all i.
I spent a while looking at it without really getting anywhere, I can't really see the connection between the measurability of f and the sigma finiteness of the measure space, I am assuming that there is more to the measurability of f than just the fact it means that set makes sense. I thought possibly about writing f as the limit of simple measurable functions as they only have a finite number of values they each put out but couldn't really make it go anywhere. It was only a brief thought. I don't really have time to spend ages looking at it no matter how much I want to so a small to medium push in the right direction would be appreciated.