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I was asked in the probability course:

Can a moment generating function of a random variable $Y$ be $\cos(u), -\infty <u<\infty$?

I proved that the first property of moment generating functions is satisfied, as in:

$1=M_Y(0) = \cos(0) = 1$

But I couldn't carry on logically. What is missing so I could prove that indeed it can be? (My intuition says it can)

TheNotMe
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1 Answers1

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Try looking at $E[Y^2]$ (which you know has to be $\geqslant 0$).

Chappers
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