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I having problem recognizing the following distribution. The random variable has density

$$f_\theta(x)=\frac{x}{\theta}\exp(-x^2/ 2\theta)1_{(0,\infty)}(x)$$

with respect to lebesgue, with parameter $\theta>0$.

Edit: A few more questions :D

When we talk about distribution of a random variable, there are a number of ways you can specify it right? In this case, to say that $X\sim R(\theta)$ is equivalent to saying $X$ has probability measure $\nu=f_{\theta}\cdot m$ ?

furthermore, how can I find the distribution of $X^2$?

ChuckP
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1 Answers1

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This is the Rayleigh distribution with parameter $θ$ instead of $σ^2$ (as given in Wikipedia):

The probability density function of the Rayleigh distribution is

$$f(x;\sigma) = \frac{x}{\sigma^2} e^{-x^2/(2\sigma^2)}, \quad x \geq 0$$

where $\sigma$ is the scale parameter of the distribution. The cumulative distribution function is $$F(x) = 1 - e^{-x^2/(2\sigma^2)}$$ for $x \in [0,\infty).$

Jimmy R.
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