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Suppose $f:X\to Y$ is a continuous map between two metric spaces. Can we extend $f$ to a function $f':X'\to Y'$ in such a way that $f'$ is also continuous ($X'$ and $Y'$ are also metric spaces), where $X$ and $Y$ are open subsets of $X'$ and $Y'$ respectively and the restriction of $f'$ in $X$ is $f$ and $(f')^{-1}(Y)=X$?

Chappers
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SAUVIK
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2 Answers2

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Not in general.

Embed the real line $\mathbb{R}$ in the extended real line $\bar{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup\{-\infty,\infty\}$ in the usual way and also as $\mathbb{R}'=\mathbb{R}\cup\{\omega\}$ (the one point compactification).

Then the map $f\colon \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(x)=x$ cannot be extended to a continuous map $f'\colon \mathbb{R}'\to\bar{\mathbb{R}}$.

egreg
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  • Suppose there is no such f initially between X and Y but can we construct any f' between X' and Y' with the above condition? – SAUVIK Mar 31 '15 at 16:47
  • @user155928 I can't understand – egreg Mar 31 '15 at 16:49
  • Suppose X and Y are two metric spaces.Can you find X' and Y' such that X and Y are open in X' and Y' respectively and there exist some f' such that f' inverse Y is X? – SAUVIK Mar 31 '15 at 16:53
  • @user155928 Trivially take $X'=X$ and $Y'=Y$. – Crostul Mar 31 '15 at 16:57
  • @user155928 Not in general. Take $Y$ a disconnected open subset of $Y'$ and $X$ a connected open subset of $X'$. – egreg Mar 31 '15 at 16:57
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As I currently understand your question, the answer is no. For example, let $X' = \mathbb{R}, X = (0,\infty)$, and $Y = Y' = \mathbb{R}$. The natural log is a continuous map from $X$ to $Y$ that has no extension to $X'$.

Maybe you can impose further restrictions on your question?

PeterJL
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