An exercise in Armstrong says if the topological group $G$ acts on the topological space $X$ by homeomorphisms, then the stabilizer $\text{st}(x)=\{g\in G\mid g(x)=x\}$ is a closed subset of $G$.
If $X$ were Hausdorff this would be easy. But he doesn't assume that. I can't manage to prove it or find a counter-example.
Note that Armstrong assumes $G$ is Hausdorff in his definition of topological group. And he assumes the identity in $G$ gives the trivial homeomorphism, and he assumes the map $G\times X\rightarrow X$ is continuous.
I've searched this site and the web in general and can't find a resolution of this question either way.